Can anyone help please. I get confused - maybe someone can help explain to me. So my melanoma was 1.1mm without ulceration. In U.K. I think that makes me 1b. Had it removed and they ssaid ‘it’s all out - the melanoma has gone’. Had WLE and SLNB last week with skin graft. Results are 4th July. Got told by consultant highly unlikely to have spread to lymph nodes - but I’ve seen plenty saying they were 1B before op and then went straight to stage 3 etc. I had this melanoma for years and years, being told it was just a Bcc … obviously now I know different. But why do they say it’s ‘all gone’ if they then check it’s not gone to lymph nodes. How would it get there if no ulceration. I am going to be so anxious for the next 4 or 5 weeks waiting for results. Also - has anyone had a BCC for years that then turned to a melanoma diagnosis? Thanks in advance 
Hi Jacqui l
I'm not medically qualified but as I understand it, having had both melanoma and breast cancer, when they say "it's all gone" I think they are referring to the fact that there is no evidence of cancer being left in the area that has had surgery. However, can I suggest you give your SCNS a call to check this through with her.
Waiting for the results is really horrible but someone once said to me that "worrying won't change the outcome but will ruin the present" and I've tried to follow that ever since, not always completely successfully.
I'll be keeping my fingers crossed that your WLE and SLNB both come back clear.
x
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