Hello,
I am 74 years young. I'm writing with regard to being diagnosed with Triple Negative Breast Cancer via abnormal mammogram (Dec 2022), diagnosed via biopsy in January 2023, lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy (March 2023) and now am faced with "treatment options."
*Recommended path forward is:*
4-6 Chemotherapy (Taxotere and Cyclophosphomide) followed by 20 rounds of radiation.
My pathology report lists me at T1cN1a. My oncologist however says that due to the lymph node - I'm "Stage 2". My diagnosis consists of Ductal Carcinoma In Situ as well as Invasive Ductal Carcinoma of No Special Type (i.e., - "Triple Negative"). My tumor size measured 15x14x14 MM (not centimeters) as the "largest invasive focus" (which notably on the biopsy pathology report that was listed as 6mm (not sure if biopsy pathology and surgical removal pathology should match up size wise or not) - so I'm not sure if my tumor "grew" that much in a short amount of time (basically 2 months between biopsy and surgery) ??
For the invasive ductal carcinoma features - it is a Nottingham score of "2" (intermediate) (notably with a Mitotic rate of "1" which I think is good ??) and also "Apocrine" features. For the ductal carcinoma in situ - that actually has a Grade 3 (high) with cribiform patterns.
All margins "clear" after lumpectomy. Six sentinel lymph nodes removed with one being positive as a "macrometastasis" of 4mm.
I've googled and researched until I'm blue in the face (exactly what some say to NOT do - but I cannot help myself). I DO NOT want to do chemotherapy and I'm considering NOT doing radiation.
Based on the PREDICT breast calculator nomogram (which I hear is VERY useful) - it does allow me to enter all the parameters in (i.e., for being triple negative, 1 node (not micrometasis) etc - and with surgery alone the prognosis based on everything is 66%. WITH treatment (i.e., TC as "Red Devil" has been taken off the table) it adds a "4.5% benefit" or 71% in 5 years as far as survival is concerned.
Am I incorrect in thinking that "66% v. 71% is not that big of a percentage factor to warrant treatment?